posted by [identity profile] femsc.livejournal.com at 06:42pm on 04/08/2010
I guess he has to pay for prescriptions because although he has sight problems he's not actually ill, being partially sighted isn't enough to render someone disabled.

Or do registered blind people usually get payment exemptions?

What gets me is the idiocy of the current prescription system. Living in Wales I don't pay for 'scrips anyway, but under the English system I wouldn't pay because ONE of the drugs I take is exempt from charges. I don't understand in the least why that should entitle me to free unrelated drugs. No wonder the NHS loses money.

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